1.The apex of the heart is formed mostly by the........
Ans.
2.......is the largest cranial nerve
Ans.
3, Tarsals of the ankles are examples of............ type of bone?
4............number of bones are there in the lower extremities in a normal adult?
5. The approximate maximum air volume in the lung is.........for normal healthy adult?
Ans.
6. Carpometacarpal joint is an example of....... types of joints?
Ans.
7.........layers of the adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids?
Ans.
8................is an example of ball-and-socket joints?
Ans.
9. The synonym of Clotting Factor II is..........
Ans.
10...............quadriceps femoris muscles help in flexion of the thigh?
Ans.
11...........parts of the brain controls the temperature?
Ans.
12...........pairs of cervical nerves are there in the spinal cord?
Ans.
13.The elbow is an example of a.......... Joint
Ans.
14.The expanded ends of a long bone are called.............
Ans.
15.The posterior pituitary consists mainly of.............cell
16. A cell that manufactures and stores the protein keratine is.............
17............ Hormones inhibits release of growth hormone
Ans.
18.Oxytocin is mainly involved...... Function
19. Widal, a serological test, is used to detect the presence of..........
Ans.
20. The causative agent of Lyme disease is............
Ans.
21........... microorganisms causes gonorrhea
Ans.
22.The optimum temperature in an autoclave to achieve sterility is...............
23.The introduction of antibodies into the body from an animal or person already immune to the disease is called..........
Ans.
24.Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by.................
Ans.
25.Rod-shaped bacteria are called............
Ans.
26...............is considered as the father of sociology?
Ans.
27. The general process of acquiring culture is referred to as..........
Ans.
28...........said that man is a social animal
Ans.
29.Any small group marked by continuous close interaction of a highly personal and emotionally supportive nature is called..........
Ans.
30.polyandry means.........
Ans.
31.Lackof oxygen in the blood stream is called........
Ans.
32. Under normal circumstances, concentration of oxygen in inspired air is about...... per cent
Ans.
33.As per Kübler-Ross stages of grieving, refusing to believe that loss is happening/has happened is called..........
Ans.
34..............organ is one of the primary regulator of body fluid and electrolyte balance
Ans.
35.The approximate normal level of haematocrit/packed cell volume in men is..................
Ans.
36............. tests need to be performed before radial artery cannulation to evaluate radial and ulnar arterial patency
Ans.
37. A group of symptoms is known as.....
Ans.
38.Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration is called...........
Ans.
39.A bedridden patient is having intact skin at the sacral region,and the symptoms of warmness, pain and firm skin at site. The stage of bedsore is.........
Ans.
40.Following death, the subjective response experienced by the surviving loved ones is called:
ANS.
52. Temperature of 98.7 degree Fahrenheit is approximately equal to degree........ Celsius.
53.Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called......
Ans.
54.Formula to calculate BMI is..........
Ans.
55..........equipment is used for the examination of the ear?
Ans.
56.Insertion of a tube inside the stomach through the nose is called Intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride is a/an............ solution.
57.The process of introducing a disinfectant solution to the internal environment of the body when someone passes away is...........
Ans.
58.The sudden fall of temperature from high to normal within is called.....
59.In a healthy individual, weighing 70 kg at rest, the stroke volume is about..........
Ans.
60.The fever in which temperature remains above normal throughout the day and fluctuate more than 2 Degree Fahrenheit is known as........... fever.
61. The site of pulse in the neck is called
Ans.
62. The gradual decrease in body's temperature after death is called.....
Ans.
67. The discoloration that appears in the dependent areas of the body after death is called.........
Ans.
68.Kussmaul breathing is associated with.........
71. A patient is to receive 1000 mL of IV fluid in 6 hours. The Drop factor is 15 drops per mL. approximately......... Number of drops per minute should the flow rte be set
Ans.
72............positions is the patient at greatest risk of shearing force
Ans.
73. Movement of the joints away from the mid-line of the body is called.........
Ans.
74.The term Cheilosis mean...........
Ans.
75.Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called
Ans.
76. Stiffness in the body that occurs after 2 to 4 hours after death is called:
77.The main intracellular cation is.........
Ans.
78.Inflammation of the oral mucosa is known as
Ans..
79.Koplik's spots are the clinical feature of.........
Ans.
80.One CHC covers a population of.........
Ans.
81.The number of all current cases of a disease at one point of time is called..........
Ans.
82...............year was the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana(RSBY) introduced
Ans.
C.
d.
2005
85. Hardness of water is expressed as:
PPL
a.
mg/L
C. mEq/ML
d. mg%
86. The route of administration of hepatitis B vaccine is:
b.
a. Intramuscular
b. Subcutaneous
C. Intrathecal
d. Intradermal
87. The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given
geographic area is called:
a. Sporadic
b. Endemic
C. Pandemic
d. Epidemic
88. The denominator used to calculate crude birth rate is:
a. School-going population
Live births in that year
Mid-year population in that year
d. Population aged 18 years or above
89. What was the theme of World Health Day 2019?
a. Halt the rise: beat diabetes
b. Healthy heart beat: healthy blood pressure
C. Food safety
d. Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere
90. What is the minimum contact time required for the
chlorination of water to take place?
b.
C.
10 minutes
a.
b. 90 minutes
SECTION:NUTRITION
91. Which of the following digestive enzymes
juice is primarily responsible
a. Trypsin
b. Pepsin
Peptidases
Chymotrypsin
t in gastri
proteins?
ible for breaking down
92. Emulsification of lipids in the small intestine equires:
d.
a. Gastric lipase
b. Pepsin
c. Pancreatic lipase
d. Bile salts
to the
93. Which of the following nutrients provides energy
of
int
10
body?
Fat
a.
b. Zinc
C. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin D
94. Which of the following is precursor to vitamin A?
a. Pyridoxine
ojana
b. Beta-carotene
c. Thiamine
d. Retinol
95. An average healthy person with no diseases should idealy
of his/her daily calorie requirements from
get
healthy fats.
a. 50% to 60%
b. 70% to 80%
C. 20% to 30%
d. 5% to 10%
96. In which organ does the absorption of iron takes place?
Colon
a.
b. Duodenum in small intestine
C. Liver
d. Stomach
given
97. Vitamin B1 is also known as:
a. Pyridoxine
b. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
Niacin
d.
98. Which of the following trace elements is essential for th
synthesis of insulin?
a. Cobalt
b.
Iron
Zinc
c.
d. Sodium
99. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
a. Niacin
b. Thiamine
C. Pyridoxine
100. Calories generated per gram of fat is approximately:
a. 4 Kcals
d. Valine
the
b. 15 Kcals
d. 9 Kcals
C. 1 Kcals
SECTION: MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING
101. Which of the following drugs is a proton pump ibitor?
a. Ranitidine
b. Famotidine
02. Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of which of the
113
103.
The name of the
duodenum, head of pancreas, gallbladder and bile ducts is
following hormones?
a. Antidiuretic
b. Glucagon
Insulin
.
114
Renin
.
the surgery in which there is removal of
called:
a. Appendectomy
b. Lumpectomy
Discectomy
d. Pancreatoduodenectomy
104. Bell's Palsy is a disorder of the_
115
cranial nerve.
a. 3rd
7th
b.
9th
C.
5th
105. The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is:
a. Metabolic abnormalities
11-
b. Internal bleeding
C. Compartment syndrome
d. Acute renal failure
106. Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells
into the plasma?
11
a. Alkaline
b. Hypotonic
C. Acidic
d. Hypertonic
107. An individual with which of the following blood groups is a
universal donor?
a. A -ve
b. B +ve
C. AB +ve
d. 0-ve
108. The loss of urine resulting from cognitive or environmental
factors is the manifestation of:
a. Overflow incontinence
b. Functional incontinence
C. Urge incontinence
d. Reflex incontinence
109. While assessing the level of consciousness of a patient using
Glasgow Coma Scale, which of the following score represents
the best motor response from the patient?
3
a.
b.
4
5
d.
6
. The loss of ability to recognize objects is called:
a. Dysarthria
C. Ataxia
b. Alexia
d. Agnosia
Which of the following is glandular tissue cancer
a. Liposarcoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
112. The cell- l-mediated mmunity is carried out by:
C. Neuroblastoma
d. Osteogenic sarcoma
a. Red blood cells
113. The lateral S-shaped curvature of the spine is called:
Scoliosis
a.
b. Musculosis
Kyphosis
d. Lordosis
is a radiological examination using a minimal and
safe amount of radiation to allow visualization of breast
114.
masses.
a. Computed tomography scan
b. Lymphangiogram
C. Angiogram
d. Mammogram
115. Barium enema is used mainly for radiological examination
of the:
Brain
a.
b. Colon
C. Heart
d. Oral cavity
116. While doing colostomy irrigation, the height of the irrigation
bag should be around:
a. 18 inches
b. 24 inches
C. 12 inches
d. 36 inches
117. Which one of the following procedures is used to correct
otosclerosis?
a. Myringoplasty
b. Myringotomy
C. Mastoidectomy
d. Stapedectomy
118. The term pyrosis is related to:
a. Heartburn
b. Pus formation
C. Dysphagia
d. Dyspepsia
119. The drugs used to constrict the pupils are:
a. Mydriatics
b. Sulphonamides
C. Antibiotics
d. Miotics
120. Which of the following parts of an eye alters the size of the
pupil to regulate the amount of light entering the eye?
Lens
a.
b.
Cornea
Retina
C.
d. Iris
121. The type of incontinence in which there is constant dribbling
of urine and is associated with urinating frequently and in
small amount is called:
a. Overflow incontinence
b. Stress incontinence
C. Functional incontinence
d. Urge incontinence
122. Using the 'rule of nine, estimated burn size in an adult
having burn injury to chest and stomach is
per cent.
a. 18
123, Which among the following is a colloid solution:
a. 0.9% normal saline
b. Dextran
C. 0.45% normal saline
d. 25% dextrose
24. Which of the following results from severe allergic reaction
producing overwhelming systemic vasodilation and relative
hypovolemia?
a. Hypovolemia shock
b. Anaphylactic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
d.
Septic shock
125. Which of the following enzymes converts fats into fatty acids
and glycerol?
13
a. Bile
b.
Trypsinogen
C. Salivary amylase
Lipase
d.
13
126. The movement of particles from region of higher
concentration to region of lower concentration is called:
a. Diffusion
b. Filtration
C. Osmosis
d. Hydrolysis
127. In acute pancreatitis, the levels of which of the following
enzymes remain elevated for 7-14 days?
a. Urine amylase
b. Serum amylase
C. Serum alkaline phosphatase
d. Serum lipase
128. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of interstitial
cystitis (IC)?
Frequency
13
138
a.
b.
Incontinence
139
C. Urgency
d.
Pelvis pain
129. The disease that occurs due to the defect in the genes of one
or other parent and is transmitted to the offspring is known
_disease/disorder.
as
a. Congenital
b. Organic
C. Hereditary
d. Allergic
130. Tonometry is the method of measuring the:
a. Pressure inside the lungs
b. Pressure inside the ear
140.
SEC
C. Intraocular pressure
Blood pressure
131. Haemophilia is associated with:
a. Chromosome 11
Y chromosome
141.
d.
C. Chromosome 21
142.
d. X chromosome
132. After a renal transplant, the rejection that occurs within
minutes is called:
133. Which of the following drugs is used for
pupil?
a. Tropicamide
b. Betamethasone
Levofloxacin
the
ailation of
d. Gentamicin
134. What is the minimum possible score of Glas.
we
of Glasgow Coma
n
Scale?
3
a.
1
b.
2
.
d.
135. The voice box is known as:
s
a. Larynx
b. Diaphragm
C. Bronchioles
d. Pharynx
136. The most serious complication ot deep vein thrombos
(DVT) is a blockage known as .
sis
r
a. Formation of venous ulcers
b. Chronic occlusion of veins
C. Gangrenous development of veins
d. Pulmonary embolism
137. Painful swallowing is known as:
a. Dysphasia
b. Odynophagia
Ataxia
d. Dyspepsia
138. The antidote of warfarin is:
a. Protamine sulfate
b.
Vitamin K
Heparin
Acetyl cysteine
d.
139. The most common lung cancer seen in non-smokers is:
a. Small cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinomna
C. Large cell carcinoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
140. The presence of stones in the urinary tract is called:
a. Kidney lithiasis
b. Stone lithiasis
C. Urolithiasis
d. Cholelithiasis
SECTION: PSYCHIATRIC NURSING
141. The act of purging or purification of emotions is called:
a. Compulsion
b. Catharsis
C. Cataplexy
d. Confabulation
142. Which of the following is expected in a patient who
diagnosed with an organic mental disorder?
a. Intact memory
b. Appropriate behavior
C. Disorganization of thoughts
d. Orientation to person, place and time
143. According to Erikson's eight stages of development,
VS.guilt takes place at:
a. 20-25 years
5 initiative
b. 10-15 years
13-19 rnou
.ioh of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of the
obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. No fear of self-harm
b. Fear of germs or dirt
c. Obsessive thoughts
d. Compulsive acts
Which one of the following is derived from the plant
144. WH
Cannabis Sativa'?
b. Morphine
C. Ganja
d. Opium
146. False sensory perception without real external stimulus is
a. Cocaine
known as:
a. Hallucination
b. Illusions
C. Delusions
d. Thought insertion
147. A patient admitted in the psychiatric ward refused to eat her
lunch stating that the food is poisoned. This kind of response
is an example of:
a. Hallucination
b. Sympathy
C. Illusions
d. Delusions
148. The La Belle indifference is related to:
a. Conversion reaction
b. Obsession compulsions disorder
C. Anxiety disorder
d. Phobic anxiety
149. The disulfiram therapy is indicated in:
a. Acute intoxication
b. Cannabis dependence
C. Anxiety disorder
d. Chronic alcoholism
I50. A person suffering from .
able to speak freely with certain people only and is not able
to speak with others, especially with certain social groups
such as classmates at school.
a severe anxiety disorder, is
a. Mutism
b. Aphasia
d. Epilepsy
C. Selective mutism
SECTION: MIDWIFERY AND GYNECOLOGICAL
NURSING
1.Ovulation in a female with a 36 days cycle occurs between:
a. 30th 34th day
b. 14th -18th day
C. 8th 12th day
d.
152. ne condition where the uterus turns inside out is called:
153. The record of maternal and fetal data against time
20th 24th day
a. Uterine Inversion
b. Prolapse
C. Anteversion
d. Retroversion
ring labor on a single sheet of paper is called:
a. Ultrasonogram
6 Tocggram
the
154. The most common genital prolapse is:
a. Rectocele
b. Cystocele
C. Procidentia
d. Enterocele
155. The first stage of labor is characterized by:
a. Crowning of the head
b. Expulsion of the fetus till the placenta
C. Dilatation of cervix
unt
d. Delivery of the placenta
156. The length of the fallopian tube ranges from:
22-27 cmn
a.
is
b.
7-12 cm
C. 28-31l cm
d. 2-7 cm
157. The shape of the brim in anthropoid pelvis is:
a. Triangular with base towards sacrum
b. Square
er
se
C. Well-rounded
d.
Oval
158. The suture that separates the parietal bone from the tabular
portion of the occipital bone is called:
a. Lambdoid suture
b. Frontal suture
Sagittal suture
d. Coronal suture
c.
159. Urine formation usually begins towards the end of the
and continues throughout fetal life.
3-5 weeks
a.
b. 2-3 weeks
C. 21-22 weeks
d. 11-12 weeks
160. The settling of fetal head into the brim of the pelvis is called:
a. Crowning of head
b. Lightening
C. Engagement
d. Descent
161. Which of the following is the common site of fertilization?
a. Interstitial
b.
Isthmic
C. Ampulla
d. Infundibulum
162. At about
of gestation, the height of the uterus is at
the level of umbilicus.
a. 6-8 weeks
c. 20-22 weeks
b. 3-5 weeks
d. 10-12 weeks
163. The ovarian cycle is initiated by:
a. Progesterone
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Endorphins
d. Estrogen
164. The most common cause of non-engagement at term in
primigravida is:
a. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
b. Breech presentation
C. Hydramnios
d. Brow presentation
165. What is the correct sequence of mitosis?
a. Prophase, Metanhan
lbl
166. The uterine fibroid is associated with:
a. Endometriosis
b. Amenorrhea
C. Ovarian cancer
d.
PID
167. Inflammation of the fallopian tube is called:
a. Endometritis
b. Vaginitis
C. Salpingitis
d. Cervicitis
168. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy 15:
a. ampullary region in the fallopian tube
b. Cervix
C. Abdomen
d. Ovary
169. The darkening of the skin over the forehead, bridge of nose
or cheekbones during pregnancy is called:
a. Chloasma
b. Chadwick's sign
C. Hegars sign
d. Linea nigra
170. The approximate average weight of placenta at birth is:
300g
400 g
C. 508 g
600 g
a.
b.
d.
171. Which of the following hormones is increased in Polycystic
Ovarian Syndrome?
17-OH progesterone
b. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
a.
C.
d.
172. The early puerperium extends:
a. Until twelve weeks of postpartum
b. Up to first year of delivery
Until the thirteen weeks of postpartum
d. Until the first week of postpartum
173. Which one of the following is seen in preeclampsia?
C.
a. Facial hair
Hypotension
c. Weight loss
d. Proteinuria
b.
174. A normal umbilical cord contains:
a. One artery and five veins
b. Two arteries and one vein
C. Five arteries and two veins
d. Two arteries and ten veins
175. Oxygenated blood from placenta returns to the fetus via the
a. Superior vena cava
b. Inferior vena cava
Umbilical vein
d. Ductus arteriosus
176. Post-term pregnancy is a pregnancy which continues beyond:
294 days
177. What is the ideal average newborn's head circs
birth?
rcumference
A
a. 75 cm
35 cm
b.
C. 55 cm
d. 15 c
178. Which of the following indicates relationship of lo.
the fetus to that of mother?
a. Fetal lie
b. Fetal presentation
Fetal attitude
d. Fetal position
179, The outer most membrane of placenta is called:
a. Yolk sac
b. Chorion
Amnion
d. Meningitis
180. Peg cells are seen in the:
a. Intestine
b. Fallopian tubes
Stomach
C.
d. Vagina
181. Which of the following is the most important tumor marker
to diagnose carcinoma of ovary?
a. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin
b. CA 125
Human placental lactogen
d. Serum alpha fetoprotein
182. The onset of menstruation is called:
c.
a. Menopause
b. Menarche
C. Andropause
d. Ovarian cycle
183. Of the 6-7 million oocytes available, how many are released
during ovulation?
3000 to 4000
a.
b. 400 to 500
C. 2000 to 3000
d. 100 to 200
184. During the active phase of labor, the cervical dilatation per
hour in primigravidas is approximately:
1.2 cm
a.
b. 1.9 cm
C. 2.3 cm
d. 2.5 cm
185. The correct sequence of development of puberty in girls is:
a. Menarche, Pubarche, Thelarche
b. Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche
Thelarche, Menarche, Pubarche
d. Pubarche, Menarche, Thelarche
186. Postpartum hemorrhage is the condition in which there
loss of more than
mL vaginal blood.
100
a.
b.
50Which fthe following is NOT a eature of HELLP syndrome?
a. Raised liver enzymes
Eosinophilia
b.
Thrombocytopenia
d. Hemolytic anemia
189.
mother during pregnancy is known as:
C.
The first perception of active fetal movement felt by the
a. Engagement
b. Hastening
C. Quickening
d. Lightening
190. The maneuver commonly used to manage shoulder dystocia
is:
a. Rosette maneuver
b. McRoberts maneuver
C. Jeff Marshal maneuver
MacMillan maneuver
d.
SECTION: PEDIATRIC NURSING
191. Which of the following is the most common cause of
ophthalmic neonatorum?
a. Candida albicans
b. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. Streptococcus
192. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Tetralogy of
Fallot (TOF)?
Patent ductus arteriosus
a.
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
C. Overriding of aorta
d. Pulmonary stenosis
93. An injury to the upper brachial plexus results in:
a. Facial palsy
b. Phrenic nerve palsy
C Klumpkes palsy
d. Erb's palsy
C. 10
187. The normal APGAR score of a new born is:
d. 500
a. 7 and above
194. Which of the following is the ideal age for closure of the
anterior fontanel of a child?
a. 18 to 24 months
b. 6 to 8 months
C. 6 to 8 weeks
d. 18 to 24 weeks
95. Which of the following is NOT a complication of measles?
Laryngitis
b. Conjunctivitis
Atrial Septal Defect
d. Encephalitis
96. The most common type of leukemia seen in children is:
a. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
b. Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CHL)
C. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
d. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
7. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?
a.
C.
a. Inattention
b. Impulsivity
C. Difficulty in eating
d. Over activity
8. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestations of
Trisomy 21?
a. Flat nasal bridge
Protruding tongue
C. Long hands and fingers
d. Small nose
b.
Which of the following conditions can result in a hairy patch
on the back of children?
a. Epilepsy
b. Hydrocephalus
Spina bifida occulta
Ricket
C.
d.
The Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched
jointly by:
a. WHO and Red Cross
b. WHO and FAO
C. UNICEF and WHO
d. UNICEF and FAO
Comments
Post a Comment